Why do people use the latter terminology? Relative why can be freely substituted with that, like any restrictive relative marker. Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. I. e, substituting that for why in the sentences above produces exactly the same pattern of grammaticality and ungrammaticality: I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. What i dont understand is why. · my question is: For one thing, i find it confusing. Also, if you say today was an usual day, unless your pronunciation is extremely clear, you risk being misunderstood as today was unusual day, which will only confuse your listeners. It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. However, its also a common idiom, and i am Im looking for something more concrete indicating what caused it to be used in this context. Is there flexibility in how one can punctuate the phrase why not? the answer may seem obvious at first. it is a question after all. Today why is used as a question word to ask the reason or purpose of something. The reason that he did it * the cause that he did it * the intention that he did it * the effect that he did it * the thing that. · this appears to be speculative, and doesnt necessarily explain why this definition fell into common usage to indicate a cigarette. Spook seems to also mean ghos. As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. Were bce/ce established earlier than bc/ad? But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms, whereas with bc and ad, the terms are clearly different and i find it easier to distinguish! · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; Ive used all of the other ones on occasion. It certainly is offensive here in the us, and im not sure why its considered so much worse than other anglo-saxon words. I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. What is the origin of this meaning of the word? · why can be compared to an old latin form qui, an ablative form, meaning how.
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Why do people use the latter terminology? Relative why can be freely substituted with that, like any restrictive relative marker. Since usual starts with a...
